Re: Whence the notion of unending science?

Ken Miner wrote:
> In nearly every popular account of science and the scientific method, we
are
> told that "we will never understand everything". My question is simply,
why
> do we say that? Complete knowledge does not seem to violate any logical
> principle; etc.
> 
> I have put this question to scientists many times; the only actual
answer I
> have ever received is that we know that past science was always wrong in
> various respects, so any present science is also. So is it just an
inductive
> argument?
> 
> And when did we start saying this?
> 
> Any insight appreciated.
> 
> Ken
> 
Personally, I'd say that we can never be absolutely sure 
that any theory is correct under all conditions.  There is a 
mathematical theorem that no system of logic is totally 
consistent.