Re: Whence the notion of unending science?

In article <euRBk.657$MN3.606@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>,
 Marvin <physchem@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> wrote:

> Ken Miner wrote:
> > In nearly every popular account of science and the scientific method,
we are
> > told that "we will never understand everything". My question is
simply, why
> > do we say that? Complete knowledge does not seem to violate any
logical
> > principle; etc.
> > 
> > I have put this question to scientists many times; the only actual
answer I
> > have ever received is that we know that past science was always wrong
in
> > various respects, so any present science is also. So is it just an
inductive
> > argument?
> > 
> > And when did we start saying this?
> > 
> > Any insight appreciated.
> > 
> > Ken
> > 
> Personally, I'd say that we can never be absolutely sure 
> that any theory is correct under all conditions.

> There is a mathematical theorem that no system of logic is totally 
> consistent.

No, there isn't.

[added sci.logic]

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