bm2617@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
wrote:
: Assume No Hitler, and that a war vs the Red Menace doesn't take the
: place of OTL WWII: at most, a limited Cold War of sorts and perhaps
: some sort of dustup in the Pacific with Japan vs Whoever. Stalin, if
: he gets around to seriously persecuting Soviet Jews, doesn't kill more
[...]
1. Does this mean the Palestine remains a British mandate with a small
Jewish population (by 2008, perhaps a million Jews out of a world wide
total of 20 million)?
2. Does the legal status of Jews in Europe continue along the status quo
that existed during the interwar years (for Germany, of the Weimar years)?
3. By no "WWII" does that mean only "no holocaust" (i.e. WWII but Germans
not anti-semitic, so you would have has German Jews playing a significant
role in the Wehrmacht, and with a little redefinition of racial doctrines,
in the Gestapo as well), or truely no war (meaning that the British and
French Empires probably still exist, Japan is a superpower, and the US is
one of several major powers).
Among secular Jews, Yiddish would die out, as it did in OTL. It wasn't
really killed by the holocaust, but rather by linguistic assimilation. No
one was setting up colleges using Yiddish in the pre-war years. Among
secular Jews, English would still end up as the "lingua franca" as in OTL,
perhaps with competition from German (especially if a philosemitic Germany
won the war).
Among Orthodox Jews, who would be a much higher percentage of the Jewish
population, Yiddish would have survived and flowered, more than in OTL.
Non-Ashkenazi Jews would have remained a small minority of the total
Jewish population (unlike OTL where the holocaust radically ****fted the
percentages), and native Hebrew speakers would have remained rare outside
of Palestine. Yiddish would have remained the lingua franca among
Orthodox Jews (rather than Hebrew which plays that role in OTL).
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